PSYCH 1X03 Fall 2020 Exam Part 1 module 1-5
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PSYCH 1X03 Fall 2020 Exam Part 1 module 1-5 - Leaderboard
PSYCH 1X03 Fall 2020 Exam Part 1 module 1-5 - Details
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| Mindy is interested in testing whether those who follow a vegan diet are happier than those who do not. She asks vegans and non-vegans to complete the Subjective Happiness Scale, and compares their answers. Which of the following is true of Mindy's research? | When doing a t-test, Mindy's null hypothesis is that vegans and non-vegans are similar in how happy they believe they are. |
| Mindy is interested in testing whether those who follow a vegan diet are happier than those who do not. She asks vegans and non- | When doing a t-test, Mindy's null hypothesis is that vegans and non-vegans are similar in how happy they believe they are. |
| Mindy is interested in testing whether those who follow a vegan diet are happier than those who do not. She asks vegans and non- | . D) When doing a t-test, Mindy's null hypothesis is that vegans and non-vegans are similar in how happy they believe they are. |
| Natalie created a pill to focus attention. She had a friend take the pill before writing her Spanish exam. She then had the same friend write her calculus exam without taking the pill. Natalie reviewed the test scores to see whether or not taking the drug increased her friend's performance. Which of the following best describes Natalie's experimental design? | Natalie inaccurately created a control condition, as it did not equal that of the experimental condition, discrediting her results. |
| Natalie created a pill to focus attention. She had a friend take the pill before writing her Spanish exam. She then had the same friend | B) Natalié. inaccurately created - control condition, as it did not equal that of the experimental condition, discrediting her results. |
| Which of the following designs best eliminates differences between experimental and control groups? | Laura conducted a within-participants experiment, where each participant completed the control and experimental condition. |
| Which of the following designs best eliminates differences bebween experimental and control groups? | D) Couta conducted. a within participante experiment, each participant completed the control and experimental |
| Which of the following is NOT a downside of using a within-participants single-blind experiment? | Confounding variables may be present due to variations between-participants in different conditions. |
| D) Couta conducted. a within participante experiment, each participant completed the control and experimental | D) Couta conducted. a within participante experiment, each participant completed the control and experimental |
| Which of the following best describes a method to avoid participant bias? | Giving the control group a mock treatment, so they are unaware of which condition they are in. |
| D) Couta conducted. a within participante experiment, each participant completed the control and experimental | D) Couta conducted. a within participante experiment, each participant completed the control and experimental |
| Which of the following is a benefit of random sampling? | It ensures that the findings of the study can have broader implications for the population |
| Which of the following variables is correctly matched with its definition? | The confounding variable is a variable other than the independent variable that affects the results |
| Which of the following is a correct comparison between descriptive and inferential statistics? | Descriptive statistics allow us to summarize the overall data from the experiment, while inferential statistics allow us to determine whether our results can apply to the overall population. |
| Which of following best describes the conditions of a double blind experiment? | Neither experimenter or participants know which group the participants are in. |
| Which of the following is true when using statistics to analyze data? | Inferential statistics allow us to make assumptions about general populations, while descriptive statistics creates a summary of the data |
| Both Melissa and Daniel are TAs, and both of their tutorials achieved the same average on their first quiz. When they plotted the individual data points, Melissa noticed her graph was a lot wider than Daniel's. What is a plausible the reason for this wider graph? | Melissa's tutorial had a greater standard deviation than Daniel's. |
| Which of the following is an example of the social desirability bias? | Gemmy is less likely to report drug use on a survey when it is done with the experimenter in the room rather than when it is done from his home computer. |
| What is the purpose of random assignment? | Random assignment allows us to compare between different conditions of the experiment. |
| When determining statistical significance, which of the following best describes reaching a significant result? | Obtaining a p value less than 0.05, meaning that the likelihood that the results were obtained by chance is less than 5%. |
| Which of the following is an example of a blind study? | Participants are assigned to either the experimental or control condition by the experimenter, and are not told which group they have been assigned to. |
| Which of the following statements about participant bias is most correct? | Participant bias can be reduced or even prevented by making the conditions of the experiment as similar as possible between the experimental and control groups. |
| Which of the following correctly describes an experiment? | Experiments utilize independent variables, which describes the condition the experimenter places the participant in. |
| What term is used for an experiment where the same participants make up each condition? | Within-participants design |
| Which of the following statements regarding hypothesis testing is correct? | All else being equal, a significant difference between experimental and control group results in two identical distributions with different means. |
| Which statement about extinction is true? | If the CS is observed prior to the US following extinction, the CR may be elicited once again. |
| What is classical conditioning? | Learning that one event accurately and reliably predicts the occurrence of a second event. |
| Which of the following accurately describes a treatment for phobias? | Systematic desensitization exposes a person, over time, to a gradient of feared stimuli. |
| Which of the following best describes the process of extinction? | Extinction is when a new inhibitory response is learned that counteracts the old response. |
| The CR is best described as which of the following? | The acquired reaction triggered once the pairing of two events or objects has occurred. |
| Which of the following is true of acquisition? | The contingency between a CS and US may be formed in one trial. |
| Christian feels happy when he eats lasagna as it reminds him of his family. Which of the following accurately describes the US, CS, UR, and CR? | US = family, UR = happiness, CS = lasagna, CR = happiness |
| How does classical conditioning facilitate homeostasis? | When we learn what cues predict danger, our bodies can respond to the danger earlier by responding to the cues. |
| Which of the following is a possible explanation for why overdoses occur? | The body is unable to maintain homeostasis in a novel environment. |
| Which of the following best describes the rate at which a contingency is learned during classical conditioning training trials? | A lot of learning occurs quickly, and then rate of learning slows over time. |
| Which of the following best represents the typical rate of acquisition for a contingency? | Negatively accelerated increasing function |
| Which of the following correctly describes an extinction trial? | Presenting the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus. |
| Which of the following correctly describes the rate of acquisition? | The majority of learning occurs very quickly, but the subject continues to learn at a slower rate during later trials. |
| Which of the following best describes extinction? | Extinction occurs due to a learned inhibitory response. |
| Which of the following scenarios will lead to the most effective instrumental conditioning? | A dog growls to stop her owner if he pets her while she's napping. |
| Rebecca's dog, Jimbo, loves toys but hates his leash, and has been difficult to train. She wants to use a VI-6 omission schedule to train him. Which option should she choose? | On average every 6 minutes that Jimbo barks, take away his toy. |
| Which of the following schedules maintains a resilient contingency in the case that a reinforcement is missed? | Variable interval |
| Which of the following is the best example of omission training? | Gina was not allowed to eat dessert for failing to complete her homework. |
| Which of the following best describes the phenomenon of learning to associate the discriminative stimulus with a range of similar stimuli? | Stimulus generalization |
| Which of the following statements about reinforcement schedules is true? | Ratio strain is the limit to how stingy a ratio can be. |
| Which of the following regarding shaping and autoshaping is true? | Which of the following regarding shaping and autoshaping is true? |
| Which of the following best describes Thorndike's "law of effect"? | A behaviour followed by positive consequences is likely to increase in frequency. |
| Rob and Evan want to train their cat in a robust manner. Rob is in favour of using continuous reinforcement. Evan believes an FR-1 schedule would be more effective. Who is correct? | Neither are correct; both schedules will have equally low robustness. |
| What is the main distinction between the CS and the SD? | The CS elicits a reflexive response. |
| According to information presented in the Web Module, which of the following statements is true of the four consequences? | While omission training involves the removal of a positive reinforcer, it is not the same as punishment. |
| What is the main difference between a CS and an SD? | The CS elicits a reflexive response; the SD sets the occasion for a voluntary response |
| Which of the following best describes omission training? | Eliminating a positive reinforcer when the behaviour occurs in order to decrease the behaviour. |
| Which of the following best defines a reinforcer? | Anything that changes the frequency of a behaviour. |
| Which of the following best describes Thorndike's "law of effect"? | A behaviour followed by positive consequences is likely to increase in frequency. |
| Galton measured reaction times in order to determine a person's underlying intelligence. What was wrong with this approach? | This test evaluates only reaction time, which is not a valid way to assess a person's intelligence. |
| Which of the following correctly desribes heuristics? | Reasoning using heuristics is advantageous because it is quicker than reasoning without heuristics. |
| Which of the following is true of IQ? | IQ is standardized with an average of 100, meaning your IQ score is relative to the scores of others |
| Which of the following statements about intelligence testing is most correct? | Reaction time to sensorimotor tasks was once considered a representation of intelligence. |
| Which of the following is true with regard to intelligence testing? | The mean IQ for the population is always 100 because IQ is standardized |
| Which of the following would act as the best evidence for "g"? | An individual performs well on a standardized math test and performs with distinction on a standardized verbal test. |
| What makes an experiment reliable? | It produces similar results when one person takes the test multiple times. |
| According to Piaget's theories of intelligence development, what does it mean to assimilate knowledge? | Incorporate new information into an existing schema |
| Which of the following tests best exemplifies the criterion of reliability? | Kiley has recently been involved in a homicide investigation; to determine whether she shows anti-social tendencies she has taken the same personality test several times over a period of 18 months, each time with results coming up negative. |
| Which of the following accurately demonstrates the Flynn Effect? | Despite no known reason for the changes, raw IQ scores obtained from IQ tests have been on the rise for the past several decades. |
| Which of the following tests best demonstrates both reliability and validity? | A personality test is used to identify leading candidates for a job opening; it measures the four widely accepted factors of personality and identifies an individual's personality type, which does not change across trials. |
| Which of the following scenarios best demonstrates assimilation according to Piaget? | Oscar knows that dogs are small, furry and four-legged animals. He sees a breed of dog that he has never seen before and calls it a "dog", adding this information to his schema for dogs. |
| At one stage in cognitive development, children learn that objects do not disappear if they are removed from sight. What is this called? | Object permanence |
| Which of the following is true of intelligence and intelligence testing? | Galton's intelligence test may have been reliable but was not valid. |
| Which of the following is true regarding the influence nature and nurture on intelligence? | Identical twins have more similar intelligence levels than non-identical twins. |
| Which of the following most accurately describes the availability heuristic? | People assess the frequency of an incident depending on how quickly an example comes to mind |
| According to the Building Better Brains article, which of the following best describes the change in neural activity after cognitive training? | The prefrontal cortex is less active when performing future cognitive tasks. |
| Sally and Billy are competing to estimate the number of jelly beans in a jar. Sally's friend tells her that there seems to be more or less 10,000 jelly beans in the jar, while Billy's friend tells him that there seems to be more or less 5,000 jelly beans in the jar. The actual number of beans is 4,000. According to the lecture, which of the following is most likely true? | Billy would win, because anchoring the estimate at 5,000 makes him more likely to estimate closer to 4,000. |
| 3-month-old Sheila and her 2-year old sister Betty have only been exposed to English. They are habituated to a non-English phoneme (/ka/). Sheila turns her head when a new, non-English phoneme is presented (/kka/). Betty, however, does not turn her head when this new phoneme is presented. Why is this so? | Betty is subject to perceptual narrowing and is, therefore, unable to distinguish between the two phonemes. |
| Which of the following phrases contains appropriate semantics but not syntax? | Hungry, I wants pizzas. |
| Which of the following examples best supports the social learning theory of language? | 2-year-old Frank gets candy from his parents when he uses words instead of gestures, and, as a result, his vocabulary has been continuously expanding. |
| Which of the following correctly describes the language explosion? | Within the first several years of development, the child experiences an exponential increase in the number of words in their vocabulary. |
| Which of the following is true regarding the vocabulary of developing children? | Children rapidly increase their vocabulary in the "language explosion", which occurs at 1.5 to 6 years of age. |
| Which of the following provided evidence against the Whorf-Sapir hypothesis? | Cultures that have specific designations for family members are no better at distinguishing family members than cultures that do not. |
| Which of the following is the best evidence for social learning theory | When the child known as Genie was not socialized by interacting with other people from a young age, she never developed language skills. |
| What do researchers mean when they describe language as "arbitrary"? | There is no inherent relationship between a sound and the idea it represents. |
| According to the textbook, what is the main difference between syntax and semantics? | Syntax deals with how components of meaning should be properly combined, and semantics deals with whether combinations of words and morphemes provide meaning. |
| According to the textbook, which of the following best describes the meaning of perceptual narrowing? | The eventual extinction of the ability to distinguish between phonemes in unfamiliar languages that were not used throughout the child's development. |
| According to the textbook, which of the following is the most accurate example of an overregularization in the form of telegraphic speech in children? | A child accidentally broke a vase of flowers and when asked about what happened by her mother, she responds "Glass breaked!" |
| Which of the following examples best provides evidence AGAINST the Whorf-Sapir hypothesis? | Brij's mother only knows to refer to all sweet liquids as syrups. Regardless, she understands the difference between honey, maple syrup, and compote. |
| Which of the following is an example of evidence AGAINST social learning theory? | Little Hermione learned that the place where she always sleeps at night is called "bed". Now she refers to all comfy, soft furniture only as "bed". |
| Which of the statements about universal phoneme sensitivity is FALSE? | As you get older, you are better able to discriminate between different sounds — especially those that are not from your native language. |
| What are morphemes? | The smallest unit of sound that contains information. |