How many bones is the musculoskeletal system composed of? | 206 |
List the 5 basic functions of the musculoskeletal system: | 1. Support
2. Protection
3. Movement
4. Mineral storage
5. Hematopoiesis |
Where is red bone marrow found? | In the ends of the long bones |
As a person ages, red bone marrow converts to: | Yellow bone marrow;
composed of fat cells |
What are the 2 important functions of joints? | 1. Hold bones together to form the skeleton
2. Allow movement and flexibility of the skeleton |
Describe the type of movement each class of joint provides: | Synarthrosis- No movement
Amphiarthrosis- Slight movement
Diarthrosis- Free movement |
What is the axial skeleton composed of? | Skull
Hyoid bone
Vertebral column
Thorax |
What is the appendicular skeleton composed of? | Upper extremities
Lower extremities
Shoulder girdle
Pelvic girdle (EXCLUDING sacrum) |
85% of all body heat is produced by: | Contraction of the skeletal muscles |
Which angle of extension indicates hyperextension? | more than 180 degrees |
What is the "All or none law"? | When a muscle cell is shocked or stimulated adequately, it will contract completely |
Why is a paralyzed extremity incapable of producing movement? | The muscles are no longer receiving stimuli from nerve fibers |
What is the most common discomfort after a myelogram? | Headache |
Where is the needle inserted in a myelogram? | Below the level of the spinal cord at the fourth or fifth lumbar space |
What type of metal is typically safe during an MRI? | Titanium |
What kind of scan should not be used unnecessarily because of the radiation exposure? | Computed Tomography (CT) |
A CT scan is ______ times more sensitive than a radiograph machine | 100 |
The puncture of a patient's joint with a needle and the withdrawal of synovial fluid for diagnostic purposes is known as: | Arthrocentesis |
What does synovial fluid look like if disease is present? | Cloudy
Milky
Snaguineous
Yellow/Green/Gray |
Bone loss can be completely reversed if immobilization is limited to how long? | 1 to 2 months |
What are the 4 classic symptoms of RA? | 1. Morning stiffness
2. Joint pain
3. Muscle weakness
4. Fatigue |
Describe the exercise program for RA: | 2 or 3 10-15 minute daily sessions of quiet exercises to put joints through ROM |
What are the common ages for onset of AS? | between 15 and 35 |
In AS, pain is more pronounced when the patient is in which position? | Erect position |
AS primarily affects which part of the musculoskeletal system? | Spine |
What helps a patient with AS to extend the spine? | Lying on the abdomen for 15-30 minutes 4 times a day |
Which inflammatory disorder is known as "degenerative joint disease"? | Osteoarthritis |
Which joints are primarily affected in men and women with osteoarthritis | Women- Hands
Men- Hips |
What is the most common form of arthritis? | Osteoarthritis |
What is the most serious form of arthritis? | Rheumatoid arthritis |
Gout is a metabolic disease resulting from: | Accumulation of uric acid in the blood |
How should bone resorption inhibitors be administered? | With 6-8 oz of water; remain upright 30 minutes |
Osteomyelitis is an infection of the: | Bone and bone marrow |
To prevent osteoporosis, excess ________ should be decreased in the diet. | Protein |
What is the daily recommended intake of calcium for postmenopausal women who are not taking estrogen? | 1500 mg |
What is the most common causative organism of osteomyelitis? | Staphylococci |
What is a sequestrum? | Necrotic bone that is partially or entirely detached from the healthy bone |
What kind of precautions are necessary for a patient with osteomyelitis? | Drainage and secretion precautions |
What is arthrodesis? | The surgical fusion of a joint |
What are the 3 compartments of the knee? | 1. Medial, inside compartment
2. Lateral, outside compartment
3. Patellofemoral compartment; where the kneecap rests |
When is unicompartmental knee arthroplasty performed? | When only one of the knee's compartments has been affected by arthritic changes |
Total knee replacement can be performed on patients of which ages? | All ages |
When should neurovascular checks be performed after a total hip replacement? | Every hour for 24 hours,
every 2 hours for the next 24 hours,
and then every 4 hours |
Hip flexion following a total hip replacement should be limited to ____ degrees for 2-3 months. | 90 degrees |
What kind of drugs might someone with reflux disease take, that cause malabsorption of calcium? | Antacids
Proton pump inhibitors |
Why might blood glucose levels be elevated in someone with a hip fracture? | Because of the stress of the trauma |
An abduction splint should be used for how may days after a fractured hip? | 7-10 days |
What is a fracture? | An injury to a bone in which the continuity of the tissue of the bone is broken |
Fractures that occur without trauma are referred to as: | Pathologic or spontaneous fractures |
Describe a comminuted fracture: | Bone is splintered into 3 or more fragments |
Describe a transverse fracture: | Fracture runs directly across the bone at a right angle (towards the bone's axis) |
What type of fracture runs diagonally across the bone at a 45 degree angle to the shaft of the bone? | Oblique fracture |
Which type of fracture is most common in children? | Greenstick fracture |
What is a greenstick fracture? | An incomplete fracture; fracture line extends only partially through the bone |
What kind of fracture is common when a person uses their hands to break a fall? | Colle's fracture |
What kind of fracture occurs at the distal end of the fibula? | Pott's fracture |
What are the bony deposits that form between and around the broken ends of a bone during healing? | Callus |
What is creptis? | A grating sound that may be heard when limb is moved gently |
What are the seven P's of orthopedic assessment? | Pain
Pallor
Paresthesia
Paralysis
Polar temperature
Puffiness
Pulselessness |
The head of the bed should be raised to no more than ____ degrees for a patient with a vertebral fracture | 30 degrees |
The _____ has a rich blood supply; a fracture may result in extensive blood loss. | Pelvis |
What is the most threatening complication of a pelvis fracture? | Hemorrhage |
How long does a patient with a pelvis fracture remain on bedrest? How long do the walk with crutches? | Bedrest- 3 weeks
Crutches- 6 weeks |
What is the pathological condition caused by the development of arterial vessel compression and reduced blood supply to an extremity (one of the body's compartments) | Compartment syndrome |
In relation to compartment syndrome, irreversible muscle ischemia can occur within __ hours. | 6 |
How should the limb be elevated in a person with compartment syndrome? | No higher than heart level; maintain arterial pressure |
Describe a Volksmann's contracture | A permanent contracture; clawhand, flexion of wrist and fingers, and atrophy of forearm. |
As shock progresses, what can occur? | Hypothermia |
What are shock trousers? | Pneumatic trousers used to counteract hypotension associated with internal/external bleeding and hypovolemia |
Which position should be avoided for a person experiencing shock? | Trendelensburg |
What is the most serious complication of long bone fractures? | Pulmonary fat embolism syndrome |
How often should a patient with a fat embolism be repositioned before immobilization? | As little as possible;
danger of dislodging more fat droplets into the general circulation |
A severe infection of the skeletal muscle caused by gram-positive clostridial bacteria is know as: | Gas Gangrene |
Where is clostridial bacteria normally found? | In soil, and human intestinal tracts |
In addition to administering antibiotics, what else is included in the medical management of gas gangrene? | Establishing a larger wound opening to admit air and promote drainage |
How should equipment and linens be disinfected when caring for a patient with gas gangrene? | Autoclaved |
What medications are administered to a person with a thromboembolous? | Anticoagulants;
warfarin, heparin, enoxaparin |
A person with which kind of fractures are at high risk of developing thromboembolous? | Pelvic and hip fractures |
What is a delayed union? | A fracture that does not heal within usual time |
What is a nonunion? | Ends of the fractured bone fail to unite after 6 to 9 months |
What can cause a nonunion? | Infection and poor perfusion |
Which fixation technique is becoming more popular because is provides rigid support of open fractures, infected nonunions, and infected unstable joints? | Skeletal pin external fixation |
Cast bracing is based on the concept that: | limited weight-bearing helps promote the formation of the bone |
What is a common problem that develops with cast bracing? | Edema around the knee |
A spica cast covers which parts of the body? | The trunk and one or both extremities |
Cast syndrome involves acute obstruction of the: | Duodenum |
Buck's, Russell's and Bryant's are types of: | Skin traction |
How does Russell's traction differ from Buck's traction? | A sling supports the affected leg |
How should a cane be held? | In the opposite hand of the affected extremity |
What is the most common soft tissue injury? | Contusions |
In addition to elevation, how are most contusions treated? | Ice bags or cold packs;
15-20 minute periods over 12-36 hours |
What does RICE stand for? | R- Rest
I- Ice
C- Compression
E- Elevation |
What is a subluxation? | Partial or incomplete dislocation |
Carpal tunnel is most common in which individuals? | -Obese middle-aged women
-Individuals with occupations involving repetitious motions of the fingers and hands |
Formation of Heberden nodes is caused by: | Osteoarthritis |
What is typically the patient's way of relieving discomfort in carpal tunnel? | Vigorously shaking or exercising the hands |
Which type of herniations are most common? | Lumbar and cervical |
Osteogenic sarcoma most commonly affects which individual? | Males ages 10-25 |
What is the most common benign osteogenic tumor? | Osteochondroma |
Amputee patients should be placed in which position at least twice a day? | Prone |